What happens to land prices during western separation(or not)?

[tweety]

In 1871, the Government of Canada entered into Treaty 1 and Treaty 2 to obtain the consent of the indigenous nations from the territories set out respectively in each Treaty. The Treaties provided for the taking up of lands "for immigration and settlement". In order to settle the area, Canada invited mass emigration by European and American pioneers, and by settlers from eastern Canada. It echoed the American homestead system by offering ownership of 160 acres of land free (except for a small registration fee) to any man over 18 or any woman heading a household. They did not need to be British subjects, but had to live on the plot and improve it.[1


I don’t see how you can say most land, other than 9.7%, is owned by the Crown, or Queen of England, when the Dominions Land Act gave ownership to homesteaders upon meeting the requirements.

Dominions act was repealed in 1930. At that point half went to provinces, half to federal. You only hold tenure, not ownership.

[samhill]

https://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/acts/T-7/page-1.html#h-461426

Please post the portion of the Territorial Lands Act that removes ownership and states tenancy.

The TLA removes any future homesteading rights.

[jazz]

Home quarter protection is derivative from the Dominion Land Act which predates the treaties. Its about as solid a land right as you are going to get anywhere except maybe the US.

[tweety]

If a provincial government wants to expropriate "your" land, you will quickly see you own nothing. Sure they need to mostly compensate you and say why, but your tenure is yanked. Then you get to "own" somewhere else.

[samhill]

There is no doubt the Crown can expropriate for “the common good”. And yes you are compensated, and have the right and opportunity of a hearing to justify your compensation.